Contentions 1 (8)

May 14, 2004  |  Contentions Commentary

Continuation of my Contentions Series

8. ?There is no God at all, and Atat?rk is His prophet.?

Context:
Muslim Shahdah (testimony of faith): “I testify that there is no God but God, and Muhummad is His messenger”.

Ataturk: Secular revolutionary ‘founder’ of modern-day Turkey

Interpretation:

This contention is what I call, the “Secular Shahadah”. Mimicing the Muslim testimony of faith, but saying what is in fact, the exact opposite.

There are also reasons that I also consider this the “Satanic Shahdah”. If you examine the first part of the contention, “There is no God at all”, you find what is ultimately a satanic phrase. Further to that, you will notice that although in the first half the person has declared there is no God, the pronoun “His” is used in the second half.

Who is being referred to when we hear, “Ataturk is His Prophet”?

I find interesting the person that Sheykh Abdal Hakim chose to represent this false ‘Prophethood’. He did not choose a theorist such as Karl Marx, but a leader of a people who have been traditionally Muslim. Is there meaning behind choosing a ‘prophet’ of secularism who came to Muslim people?

Ataturk, although he desired independence from Western powers, also desired to make his country similar to the Western powers. Ataturk was really the epitome of atheist values, his need for imitation of the West was overpowering. He went to great extents to ban traditional aspects of Turkish life, clothing, headware, even their alphabet.

Is conformance, independence?

A prophet brings a religion, Ataturk brought a cult of personality.

 


5 Comments


  1. If you examine the first part of the contention, “There is no God at all”, you find what is ultimately a satanic phrase

    Why does the absence of God have to imply the presence of the devil?

  2. Muslims believe in satanic influences and that for man to dwell in unbelief is the ultimate desire of man’s enemy, Iblis (Satan).

  3. Ah, IC. Thanks for the clarification… I’m learning =]

  4. About the alphabet thing, wasn’t illiteracy rife in the Ottoman Empire because the Persian/Arabic script was so badly mismatched to the Turkish language?

    Weren’t even some 19th century Ottomans experimenting with the Latin alphabet (albeit using an orthography more French-like than the one eventually used by Ataturk)?

Leave a Reply

Comment moderation is enabled, no need to resubmit any comments posted.